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What is the significance of the character "j" at the end of a Roman Numeral? (2013)

gpvos
28 replies
8h25m

The Dutch digraph ij originated from the same custom. Originally written ii, later ij, and pronounced as a long i (English "ee"), the sound later shifted to be similar to English "eye", see the Dutch names for the cities Berlijn and Parijs. Meanwhile, the long i sound is now written as ie. IJ is the only Dutch digraph that tends to be treated as a single letter and is capitalized as such. In education in the Netherlands it is taught as the 25th letter instead of y, which does not occur in native Dutch words, and in the phone book it used to be sorted together (mixed) with y. But since the advent of computers it is generally sorted as i followed by j. There are a few place names like Ysselsteyn where Y is pronounced as IJ.

robador
8 replies
7h35m

I'm pretty sure I was taught the letter y (I-grec) as part of the alfabet and not the ij (I'm Dutch as well). The other day I was surprised to see that an alfabet song that my kid was watching used the ij instead of the y. And I thought you were talking about IJsselstein, but saw there's indeed also Ysselsteyn, and they're not the same town (though pronounced the same). Interestingly we've then 3 ways to write the same sound (though y can also be pronounced as 'ee', e.g. Yvonne); y, ij, ei, oh, and I suppose 'ey' should be counted as well though that's not used in modern spelling. Cool

saghm
5 replies
3h29m

One of the things that blew my mind when I took a few semesters of Dutch in college is that the language occasionally gets amended (or more precisely, the way it's taught in schools is amended, although after a generation or two of delay the effects are the same) to fix inconsistencies. I can't remember if clarifying 'ij' and 'y' was one of those, but I remember the professor telling us about how a while back people were upset when they updated the spelling of the word "pannenkoek" (which I think had previously been spelled "pannekoek"), which some people apparently still haven't gotten over after almost three decades[1].

I wish there were enough willpower for something similar for English, but it's probably too late to reach any sort of compromise on whether to use a "u" in words like "color"/"colour".

[1]: https://dutchreview.com/news/dutch-government-argue-over-spe...

prerok
3 replies
2h45m

Well, I think the difference is that for Dutch, people are mostly colocated, i.e. share the same space and have a national curriculum to guide the use.

For English, it's quite different because many countries list it as their official language but may have diverged spellings and meanings and there is no single body to direct the curriculum. The most notable is the US vs. British English and the u in colo(u)r is a mere spelling example. Consider surgery or elevator, which are bigger discrepancies. I remember from my school days, as a non-native speaker, these were much more troublesome and we had a special test just to check we could tell which is which in US and GB English.

daniel-s
1 replies
2h14m

I think the reason is different. Some languages have official bodies that decree how a language works. For example the French have the French Academy.

English has no "boss" in charge of how the language works and who decides what the correct anything for the language is. The closest are style guides, but they come from multiple organisations and each often different to each other. So, it's harder to just decide that something will be spelt differently.

prerok
0 replies
2h9m

Indeed, that was what I was trying to say, but you put it more accurately. Thanks!

dragonwriter
0 replies
1h25m

For English, it's quite different because many countries list it as their official language but may have diverged spellings and meanings and there is no single body to direct the curriculum. The most notable is the US

The US doesn't have an official language, though most institutions operate primarily in English, and all US states that have one or more official languages include English on that list.

retrac
0 replies
1h22m

The French do something similar, as do the Germans. They've had relatively little luck with substantial changes recently, though. The 1990 French reforms were rather trivial. For example. the placement of the diaeresis was shifted to the first vowel in some digraphs. So "aiguë" (acute, sharp) is now "aigüe" since it is two syllables, but the former spelling misleadingly hints at three syllables. That one seems to have been well-accepted. Many of the other reforms have been only partially accepted, or explicitly rejected by many speakers. (I don't think I am ever going to get used to "ognon" for onion.)

martyvis
1 replies
6h10m

My Mum is an Australian Yvonne and married my Dutch father Jan. When we spent a whole year in the Netherlands back in 1971, Dutch acquaintances would always pronounce her name something like Yuh-vonna, quite different to how in English it is said like Ee-vonn. (My Dad's name is pronounced like Yun of course)

And yes as a 7 year old Aussie it was interesting learning that the digram "ij" was the 25th letter on the Dutch alphabet

breakingcups
0 replies
5h2m

I know several Yvonne's and we'd all pronounce it Ee-vonna.

jetrink
8 replies
7h44m

Very interesting. An example that users of this forum will be familiar with is Edsger Dijkstra.

segfaltnh
7 replies
5h52m

Does this mean the correct pronunciation is "deekstra"?

dep_b
5 replies
2h16m

It’s more like dye-kstra. But that would still be wrong. It’s a sound that doesn’t exist in English.

Daikstra - you can pronounce this

Dijkstra - a sound in between you cannot pronounce coming from English

Diekstra - you can pronounce this too

samatman
4 replies
1h49m

In IPA, the name is /dɛikstra/. Americans (English vowels vary quite extremely by dialect/accent, so I'm sticking with Standard American English) can easily pronounce ɛ, we say the word 'bed' as /bɛd/.

But the 'ɛi' is a dipthong, and we don't have that dipthong. We have aɪ, as in 'bride' /bɹaɪd/, which is what usually comes out, at least for those of us who know that /dʒɪkstɹə/ is not even close to right. What you'll hear is generally something like /daɪkstɹə/, which make sense, as we pronounce 'dike' /daɪk/ as well.

So yes, completely correct, I just wanted to add the IPA for clarity.

BalinKing
3 replies
1h32m

To my understanding, most American and British English dialects[0] have /eɪ/, e.g. in "maze", which I imagine is quite close to /ɛi/.

[0] The exceptions being dialects where it monophthongizes to /eː/

_a_a_a_
1 replies
38m

"monophthongizes" Heck of a word is that.

tomsmeding
0 replies
11m

Dutch /e/ has the tendency to become /eɪ/ as well (not in Flemish, I think), so /eɪ/ just sounds mostly like "e" to us (Dutch speakers in NL). The "ij" is really /ɛɪ/, but because we don't really have /aɪ/, it turns out that /aɪ/ works fine as a fairly non-ambiguous substitute.

wirrbel
0 replies
5h49m

no, daykstra. In the dutch of the middle-ages it might have been deekstra

cbluth
3 replies
7h37m

Don't forget the river IJ, sounds like "eye"

stavros
0 replies
7h32m

Is it "eye" or "ey"? I remember "destijl" pronounced "de steyl" and not "de style".

euroderf
0 replies
6h30m

And the windmill-brewery in AMS, Brouwerij 't IJ.

Muromec
0 replies
7h22m

And then kids in Amsterdam pronounce it now as I anyway

wirrbel
1 replies
5h46m

A local theme park as a "dutch quarter" and I as a kid was always fascinated by one booth having a letter "ÿ" in the name. I later learned that it was some kind of alternativ spelling for ij, and if you spell ij in black letters its really easy to see why that might have occured.

thequux
0 replies
2h3m

It's also quite common in handwriting; ij in cursive looks exactly like ÿ, and even when the letters aren't all joined, that is a common ligature. When I studied Flemish as part of the integration course, all of the teachers wrote ÿ, and so I presumed that it was just the done thing.

DougN7
1 replies
5h40m

30 years ago I knew a very old Swiss woman who told me they used the ‘letter’ ij (“yotee” if I remember correctly) instead of just a j (j in Swiss/German makes a y sound, like in jawohl). Hoping a Swiss person can fill in the details.

monomers
0 replies
1h4m

There is no standard writing system for Swiss German. So she might have used it, but it would be unclear to most Swiss what it means/how it should be pronounced.

dudeinjapan
0 replies
1h41m

Haha I was going to make a snarky comment that xij is done to make it look more Dutch, but its actually true!

consp
0 replies
5h33m

In Zeeuws (a Dutch dialect) many words in standard Dutch with an "ij" are pronounced as "ee" and written as "ie". So not everything has changed everywhere. (e.g. Dijk is Diek)

kzrdude
26 replies
10h40m

Now I wonder why pharmacists used roman numerals

kseistrup
24 replies
10h8m

They're more difficult to fake.

If the doctor prescribes 10 tablets, the user could be tempted to add a zero and thus get 100 tablets instead of 10. It's more difficult to turn an X into a C.

vidarh
11 replies
7h58m

But you can add a C just as easily as adding a zero, and now you've turned 10 into 110 or 90 depending on whether there was space before or after the X. I guess adding a D or M would be a bit more suspicious.

kseistrup
5 replies
7h52m

I never claimed it was impossible, just more difficult. Prevention of misreading is more important thar prevention of forgeries, I assume, and any misread og forged number would also have to match existing packaging sizes.

vidarh
4 replies
6h45m

Adding a c is hardly more difficult than adding a 0.

Matching packaging sizes is not necessary - I have had prescriptions that do not match packaging sizes many times - they will cut up sheets or transfer to other containers as needed.

Anarch157a
3 replies
6h8m

That's not universal. In my country, prescription medicine can only be sold in sealed boxes. Fractioning or tranfering to a different container is expressly forbidwn by law, so doctors always prescribe a number of boxes, not of pills. This makes a little more difficult to forge prescriptions.

8372049
1 replies
4h56m

This applies to the entire EU/EEA, too.

vidarh
0 replies
2h39m

That must be recent, as it certainly was not the norm in the UK even prior to Brexit. For some medicines, UK pharmacists are required to split packs as needed to give exactly the number of pills prescribed.

I can't find anything to suggest EU rules prevents split packs - I do see there was a tightening of the rules on how to treat packs if dispensing split backs a few years ago, but nothing since. Do you have a source?

EDIT: At least as late as per the False Medicines Directive going into force in 2019, split pack dispensing was explicitly allowed - the FMD set out rules for the controls required to do so. E.g. the original container can not leave the dispensary until its entire content is used, and the pharmacy can't re-sell or supply other pharmacies with it.

vidarh
0 replies
2h35m

If it's prescribed as number of boxes it changes nothing, as it's then just the number of boxes you need to alter instead of number of pills.

8372049
2 replies
5h7m

Getting a prescription for 90 pills instead of 100 would presumably raise suspicion.

vidarh
0 replies
2h48m

Why? If I'm prescribed a course of something for 90 days, I will get 90 pills, even if the packs have 100.

It might differ by location, but here (I'm in the UK), it's not unusual to e.g. get 14 pills of antibiotics if prescribed a two week course even if the package is in units of 10, for example.

rileymat2
0 replies
3h27m

Probably depends, my prescriptions seem to be 90 days.

inkyoto
1 replies
5h15m

The cited text has an extra detail:

  «… and it is customary to draw a line above all the letters making up the number, the dots of i and j being put above this line; for example, xviij»
So, XVIII would have been written likes this:

  _____
  XVIII
  -----
Lines would clearly delineate the beginning and the end of the number. This is how I have written the Roman numerals since school.

So, if the script had X written that way, adding a C, would have also required both lines to be extended. Not impossible to forge, but an extra effort nevertheless.

vidarh
0 replies
2h26m

Extending a straight line sounds like the easiest part of the process compared to reproducing a letter so that it matches the handwriting. As an indicator of error this seems to work fine, but to prevent fraud it seems marginal at best.

af78
9 replies
9h49m

Well, one can turn X into XX or XXX... And handwritten prescriptions have become rare where I live, these days.

_nalply
8 replies
9h43m

And as per the instruction of 1919 "it is customary to draw a line above all letters making up the number, the dots of i and j being put above the line" (in other words, the horizontal line is directly above v, x, c, and so on but between the dot of i and j and the lower part of the letter).

I think this way it is difficult to add more Roman digits like x to fake a higher amount than prescribed.

The letter j seems to be an additional security because i as a letter is narrow and one could perhaps squash in one or two more i's. The instruction also mentions that the number of dots is important, if the number of i and j is not the same as the number of dots above the line, the apothecary should assume an error.

kremi
3 replies
9h16m

Checks are quite foolproof too - spelling out the number (a hundred eighty eight) and writing the number (188), like on checks.

The paragraph you mention seems to worry more about mistakes more than tempering attempts though (taking 10x the dose prescribed could indeed be problematic)

HPsquared
1 replies
8h42m

The important part there is the termination characters. "Dollars" / "Pounds only" etc. and the decimal point (though that's easier to turn into a comma and make into thousands... Funnily enough the German way of using comma as the decimal separator avoids this)

kijin
0 replies
3h18m

Yeah, we've tried null-terminated strings and it wasn't fun. Better use a more explicit, highly visible character.

miki123211
0 replies
5h11m

Polish still regularly does this for contracts and all kinds of legal document.

I regularly see verbiage like "person A promises to pay person B 100 (in words, one hundred) zloty upon termination of this contract."

g15jv2dp
3 replies
9h27m

What prevented someone from just extending the line?

_nalply
2 replies
9h9m

I think this way it is difficult [...]

It's just difficult, but not impossible.

This said, such tampering is in my jurisdiction punishable by law (Art. 251 Forgery of a document), see https://www.fedlex.admin.ch/eli/cc/54/757_781_799/en#art_251

I am sure in Common Law jurisdiction forgery of documents is also punishable.

So such things are defended by a two-pronged approach: Make it difficult and forbid it.

kazinator
1 replies
2h42m

Someone forging a number is already going to the trouble to find seclusion so that they are unobserved, and to try to match the writing instrument (color, stroke and texture) and the handwriting of the existing digits.

A horizontal square bracket would have been a more effective deterrent than just a line.

_nalply
0 replies
1h14m

So find a time machine and travel back and tell the people of your superior solution.

scnr

kazinator
0 replies
2h47m

It's easy to turn X into XX (20) or XL (40) or XC (90).

OJFord
0 replies
8h49m

Well they were being given prescriptions (still are) for the location & frequency in Latin, in a way why use Arabic numerals?

create-account
14 replies
9h49m

Seems Just like the letter -y at the end of a or Spanish (or English?) word is a glorified i, to make it more legible

Ley, rey, etc.

harperlee
6 replies
9h25m

Those come from latin lex, rex, so possibly more related to sloppy handwriting getting standardized?

Edit: on the other hand, x used to be read /j/ (e.g. Quixote, Mexico), so also possibly lex —> lej —> ley

bradrn
4 replies
9h15m

Those come from latin lex, rex

No, in fact they descend from the accusative forms, lēgem and rēgem. I don’t know much about the precise evolution, but gy strikes me as a perfectly normal sound change, especially before /e/. Looks like it happened in the other Romance languages too: compare French roi, Portuguese rei, Italian re, etc.

yawboakye
1 replies
7h46m

correction: spanish is heavily ablative case instead of accusative. original statement is correct in principle since lex, rex are nominative and first in a nominative-genetive form in latin dictionaries. eg. lex, legis. rex, regis.

switch007
0 replies
3h43m

spanish is heavily ablative case instead of accusative

Is it? Aren't the descendants of the ablative mostly -amante adverbs and e.g. conmigo? The wiki article of Ablative Case doesn't even mention Spanish.

Got any other examples of ablative in Spanish?

satiric
1 replies
8h48m

And in English as well. German "tag" (as in "guten tag"), to Old English "daeg" (with the g pronounced as a y), to Middle English "day".

vidarh
0 replies
8h22m

In that case, German switched to "t", not English from. High German is the main odd one out of the Germanic languages in this case.

Compare "Dag" (low German)"; Saterland Frisian "Dai"; West Frisian "dei"; "dag" in Old Saxon, Dutch, Norwegian, Swedish, Danish); Faroese and Icelandic "dagur"; Gothic "dags"

d -> t is one of the major High German consonant shifts. Other examples of the d -> t shift is Vater vs. vader, fader, father (from Middle English "fader", so there the "th" in modern English is also not from the German)

Others prominent changes around the same time included e.g. p -> ff (Schiff vs. ship, schip, ship, skip, skib in other Germanic languages) and /t/ -> /t:s/ etc. - compare Zwei with two, to, två in other Germanic languages.

Very few of those changes made it into English, either Old English at the time, or later - English in that respect tends to be closer to Low German than to current standard German.

(as an English speaker - or a speaker of basically any other Germanic language -, to learn German having a rough idea about the consonant shift is a major help in figuring out German vocabulary - you'll find a lot more German words are "close enough" to be understandable once you recognise the changed sounds)

asveikau
0 replies
4h22m

X in Mexico or Quixote used to be pronounced as "sh". I think X is still used for that sound in Portuguese or Basque or Catalan if I'm not mistaken.

In the case of Mexico they were transcribing a word from indigenous people.

In a bunch of Spanish words coming from Latin, it was often from Latin double S. Eg. páxaro, from Vulgar Latin passarum. I can also think of cases of this sound coming from Arabic, eg. modern ojalá was once oxala which is a cognate with "inshallah", note the sh sound.

Sometime around the 1500s this sound changed to /x/ and they changed spellings of a few different sounds whose values had shifted over the centuries. X had merged with a sound they spelled with J, derived from Latin words with J in them.

asveikau
2 replies
4h26m

I think Old Spanish had i in some of those. Like rei. Or i meaning and.

create-account
1 replies
3h12m

Old Spanish was probably closer to the real pronunciation and had also more variety, depending on the whim of the scribe. Most of the greatest works ever written in Spanish are prior to the standardisation by the RAE at the end of the 18th century, indeed

asveikau
0 replies
1h3m

I don't know. An /i/ near a vowel in Spanish tends to become /j/. I usually see the consonant y transcribed as [ʝ].

Wikipedia on Spanish phonology notes the difference in pronunciation between viuda and ayuda which is an interesting contrast in two very similar sounding words.

Old Spanish had a lot of phonological differences so I'm not sure you can do a straight comparison.

gumby
0 replies
4h51m

It doesn’t undergo the phonetic process of umlaut, Don, and as it’s a vowel the two dots are more like a simple diaeresis.

It is used in that way in French too.

JW_00000
0 replies
8h48m

IJ probably developed out of ii, representing a long [iː] sound [...]. In the Middle Ages, the i was written without a dot in handwriting, and the combination ıı was often confused with u. Therefore, the second i was elongated: ıȷ. Later, the dots were added, albeit not in Afrikaans, a language that has its roots in Dutch. In this language y is used instead.

Alternatively, the letter J may have developed as a swash form of i. In other European languages it was first used for the final i in Roman numerals when there was more than one i in a row, such as iij for "three", to prevent the fraudulent addition of an extra i to change the number. In Dutch, which had a native ii, the "final i in a row elongated" rule was applied as well, leading to ij.

Another theory is that IJ might have arisen from the lowercase y being split into two strokes in handwriting. At some time in the 15th or 16th century, this combination began to be spelled as a ligature ij. An argument against this theory is that even in handwriting which does not join letters, ij is often written as a single sign.

So indeed maybe the same as the Roman numerals. Interesting, I didn't know this. (Also interesting that no one really knows where this letter came from.)

vasco
0 replies
9h31m

Great, now I can't move.

mannykannot
13 replies
5h20m

So you should interpret xvij as 17, not 16. It's part of the number, not something appended.

The original off-by-one error?

asveikau
11 replies
4h28m

No, it's because the letter J came about in the 4th century AD to cover the consonant version of I in Latin.

J and I are thus equivalent.

There is a similar history between U and V. The original latin alphabet just had V. U covers the case where V is a vowel. That is why in old carvings and statues they sometimes write U as V.

tiffanyh
10 replies
3h57m

J and I are thus equivalent.

Why isn’t “june” then “iune”?

U covers the case where V is a vowel

Why is “quit” not “qvit”? Because isn’t a “u” following a “q” always a non-vowel (constant)?

https://www.ck12.org/spelling/u-a-vowel-that-can-act-as-a-co....

saghm
3 replies
3h24m

To add to the sibling comment mentioning that "v" as the vowel "u" was a thing in Latin historically, it does get used this way sometimes in "fancy" signs in English even today (I've seen it mostly on buildings that have Greco-Roman architecture styles, which is fitting). From a quick google, I found this [1] picture of the word "county" spelled with a "V".

[1]: https://content.9news.com/photo/2016/08/26/citycounty2_denve...

madcaptenor
2 replies
2h28m

The main entrance to MIT has carved over it MASSACHVSETTS INSTITVTE OF TECHNOLOGY

gorlilla
0 replies
2h14m

My initial instinct was that a v is easier to engrave than a u because straight lines. That falls short once you notice all of the other curvy letters.

asveikau
1 replies
3h50m

I'm talking about historical use of these letters in Latin.

But if you've seen middle and early modern English text that hasn't been sanitized for modern readers, you will see a lot of stuff. You'll see W written as uu. You'll see lots of Vs and Us trading places, in places we no longer put them.

And eg. I kind of suspect the UK pronunciation of lieutenant, where u is /f/, has roots in it being /v/.

prerok
0 replies
2h37m

There is no j in Latin of ancient times. Both letters v and j were additions in the renaissence era.

prerok
0 replies
2h28m

In roman times June was Iunius (pronounced You-nee-ew-s, or something like that, I am not a native English speaker).

The change in the pronunciation is just centuries' worth of language evolution.

kergonath
0 replies
3h7m

Why isn’t “june” then “iune”?

Because it’s not Latin? Things change quite a lot as centuries pass. But it could have been different, like in German, in which Juni (=June) is pronounced /iuni/.

falcor84
0 replies
3h24m

Why isn’t “june” then “iune”?

I'm not certain about the etymology, but many languages do use an "i" sound for the names of June and July. I wouldn't be surprised if it started with an "i", then people switched to writing it with a "j" while still using the same sound, and then later people began pronouncing it differently.

gumby
0 replies
5h1m

A fun thought, but really Iust a reading error from someone ho didn’t know that i and j used to be variant forms of the same letter.

gregatragenet3
5 replies
3h38m

The most interesting thing is that that post sat for months without the answer "why" it was done, but chatgpt knew, from the comment added 2h ago.

The j was to prevent forgery, or altering the document. ii could be altered later to iii.. but if it was ij its obvious its been tampered with if it later appears as iji

rossdavidh
0 replies
1h22m

The question was "asked Oct 10, 2013 at 1:54" and the answer (which explains why it was done) was "answered Oct 10, 2013 at 2:58". A more likely take on chatgpt's answer is that their anti-fraud explanation is not even correct; the 2013 answer provides citations from the time explaining why, and anti-fraud is not mentioned.

layer8
0 replies
3h3m

StackExchange doesn't allow AI answers. ;)

kazinator
0 replies
2h54m

x can be altered to xx; why isn't that a problem?

crtasm
0 replies
3h1m

The question was asked over 10 years ago and now it's getting clicks from HN someone's copypasted a claim from a LLM, possibly without verifying it. That is kind of interesting, but not in a good way.

burkaman
0 replies
2h39m

ChatGPT just read that on Wikipedia (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_numerals#Use_in_the_Mi..., https://samplecontents.library.ph/wikipedia/wp/r/Roman_numer...). Notably, Wikipedia's source (https://archive.org/details/materiamedica00bastgoog/page/584...) doesn't appear to say anything about fraud or forgery or tampering, and that explanation doesn't actually make much sense as it would be quite easy to circumvent.

So please don't trust comments that just say "ChatGPT told me..."

crazygringo
4 replies
3h37m

As far as preventing forgery/tampering with the number, it's funny because this applies to merely the smallest part.

The "j" instead of "i" prevents you from adding another 1 or 2 to the number, at most.

Meanwhile, you could still change "ii" to "vii" or "xii" or "lxii" or whatever on the left side.

And still often append "i" on the right side when it doesn't end in "j" -- "x" can still become "xj", "xij", "xvij", etc.

It's just funny that you'd bother at all with "j" when it achieves so little. I see that it was also a practice to draw a line over the number -- why not just draw a whole box around it?

mvkel
1 replies
3h18m

Isn't that true for all numerals? You can make 2 12, or 21.

This is why in legal documents you'll see things like "no more than twelve (12) months"

kazinator
0 replies
2h52m

On cheques, you write the dollar part of the amount in words, with no margin to add anything on the left, and then immediately followed by a long horizontal dash to strike out anything that may be appended.

yencabulator
0 replies
2h14m

My theory #1: It's not protection against forgery, it's protection against accidental misreads. It's less likely a random smear looks like an "x" of "v" than an "i", so they don't really benefit from the terminal marker. And "i" can never start a large roman numeral, so just a terminal marker is fine.

Theory #2: It didn't start as such protection. It started as a typographical convention -- remember, there was a time when "i" and "j" weren't separate letters, "u" and "v" were not separate letters, and so on -- which then people started using as a reading guide.

strken
0 replies
3h16m

The source from the article doesn't sound like it's a measure against tampering, but instead a way to stop the patient receiving the wrong dose by accident. Prior to the early 1900s I'm pretty sure you could buy cocaine and opium over the counter in most of the English-speaking world, so there wouldn't have been any reason to alter your prescription.

Edit: the source given by the article was from 1919, so it would have been within a couple of decades of the earlier laissez-faire drug policy.

Sharlin
3 replies
7h53m

Similar flourish to the "long s" once used in English to spell the "ss" gemination: poſseſs or poſſeſs.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Long_s

nine_k
2 replies
7h17m

In German, the ligature of ſ and s turned into a single character ß.

gumby
1 replies
4h55m

It was actually ſ+z, which is easier to see if you look at it in Fraktur, and is literally the name of the character. I have long been puzzled by how its romanization became „ss“. In older writing ‘s’ was just the terminal form of ‘ſ’ — if you needed two you just wrote ſſ, same as in English into the early 19th century.

Other ligatures like tz and ch did not survive the jump into Roman letterforms, only ß for some reason.

By the way the now obsolete dual letterforms of s (ſ/s) was inherited from Greek. We’re lucky it was still in use in Leibniz’s time or calculus notation would be more confusing!

peterfirefly
0 replies
2h48m

There were ligatures for both ss and sz. The name for the sz survived for both. The modern eszett glyph usually looks like an ss ligature (long s + short s).

threatripper
2 replies
9h11m

Now i wonder if there's a connection between j and ; as termination character.

yawboakye
0 replies
7h44m

in programming? otherwise the semi-colon has a history that doesn’t seem to be influenced by final characters https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semicolon

quectophoton
0 replies
7h51m

That's a good point, somehow I've never noticed the similarity between ";" and "j" until you pointed it out.

qznc
2 replies
8h30m

if all the letters i and J are not dotted, the pharmacist may be in doubt as to the number intended.

Oh, is that where "dot the i's and cross the t's" comes from? I can imagine that saying being hammered into many medical practitioners back then.

amenhotep
0 replies
6h50m

Pretty sure that's just a derivation from everyday handwriting. The i-dots and t-crosses are two typical elements that can't be written without lifting the pen, so it's quite a frequent thing to put pen to paper, write out a word that includes i and t but leave them unfinished so you can continue the rest of the letters in one fluid motion, then go back and finish them off by dotting and crossing them.

Hence dotting is and crossing ts is going back to do final touches that you've neglected or may have missed while working quickly or casually.

ahazred8ta
0 replies
5h36m

We also have jot and tittle, from yod(י) and titulus(ʹ). Likewise 'not one iota'.

kqr
2 replies
7h48m

Here I was hoping it was indicating a complex number, since i was already taken.

...on that note, how would one write complex numbers in Roman numerals, now that both i and j are taken?

neutronicus
0 replies
7h43m

Not a notational consideration that occurred to the Romans

layer8
0 replies
7h38m

   __
  √–I

nojs
1 replies
10h41m

Looks like vim when I forget to map jk to escape.

petepete
0 replies
10h38m

Or when Romans sends smilies with Microsoft Outlook.

raverbashing
0 replies
10h33m

A j was used for the final i, to make it clear the number had ended.

Yeah I imagined this was the case. Same as other common ways to avoid misunderstanding (and possible forgeries)

quotemstr
0 replies
3h13m

They say that you should never fix a curfty system by rewriting it. The transition from Roman numerals to Arabic numbers is a great example of a situation in which you should ignore this advice.

politelemon
0 replies
6h10m

Really interesting thanks for sharing. It's great to learn these little things which would have been well known at one point but start to be forgotten as time and society progresses.

lupire
0 replies
5h9m

Hebrew has similar word-ending swashes: Final Kaf, Final Mem, Final Nun, Final Fe, Final Tzadi

kazinator
0 replies
2h54m

I don't understand why it's clear that xx is terminated, but not clear that iii is terminated, requiring the last i to be a j.

(Furthermore, if you have additional syntax on it like a superscript th, why is the j still needed then. That's a pure onion in the varnish at that point; someone just using the j without thinking about its purpose and necessity.)

jll29
0 replies
45m

i and j are both post-Roman time glyphs for the Roman numeral I (=1).

jensenbox
0 replies
4h20m

This feels like some kind of weird parity but or checksum-ish thing.

dtgriscom
0 replies
5h37m

First thought, without reading article: decimal point! (How else can you write pi in Roman numerals?)